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Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which of these results is more likely: (a) 11111111111111111111, or (b) 66234441536125563152?

I recently enjoyed an interesting comment exchange with a reader named Abs based on my earlier post The Law of Small Numbers. In essence, he challenged me with the question in the title of this post:

Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which of these results is more likely: (a) 11111111111111111111, or (b) 66234441536125563152?

Based on probability theory, I answered that they are both equally likely. More specifically, the probability that either sequence of numbers resulted from the rolls is (1/6)^20 (one-sixth to the twentieth power).

However, he pointed out that Marilyn Vos Savant (of the Monty Hall Trap fame) had given the following answer to the same question:

In theory, the results are equally likely. Both specify the number that must appear each time the die is rolled. (For example, the 10th number in the first series must be a 1. The 10th number in the second series must be a 3.) Each number—1 through 6—has the same chance of landing faceup.

But let’s say you tossed a die out of my view and then said that the results were one of the above. Which series is more likely to be the one you threw? Because the roll has already occurred, the answer is (b). It’s far more likely that the roll produced a mixed bunch of numbers than a series of 1’s.

Reference: Ask Marilyn – Sunday’s Column – July 31, 2011

In a follow-up post, a math teacher from Minnesota challenged her answer:

I’m a math instructor and I think you’re wrong about this question: “Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which result is more likely: (a) 11111111111111111111; or (b) 66234441536125563152?” You said they’re equally likely because both specify the number for each of the 20 tosses. I agree so far. However, you added, “But let’s say you rolled a die out of my view and then said the results were one of those series. Which is more likely? It’s (b) because the roll has already occurred. It was far more likely to have been that mix than a series of ones.” I disagree. Each of the results is equally likely—or unlikely. This is true even if you are not looking at the result.

Marilyn’s response to him:

My answer was correct. To convince doubting readers, I have, in fact, rolled a die 20 times and noted the result, digit by digit. It was either: (a) 11111111111111111111; or (b) 63335643331622221214.

Do you still believe that the two series are equally likely to be what I rolled? Probably not! One of them is handwritten on a slip of paper in front of me, and I’m sure readers know that (b) was the result.

The same goes for the first scenario: A person rolled a die out of my view and then informed me the result was one of these series: (a) 11111111111111111111; or (b) 66234441536125563152. It was far more likely to be (b), a jumble of numbers.

Reference: Ask Marilyn – Sunday’s Column – October 23, 2011, Parade

As evidenced by the math teacher’s response, Marilyn’s answer seemed to contradict the very well known (and true) laws of probability. But both the math teacher and Marilyn are correct. Marilyn simply could have done a better job in framing her response. Her response was actually not incorrect, but by answering the question from a different perspective, she generated some confusion. (Giving her the benefit of the doubt, perhaps this was her intention?)

First of all, in the first part of her original answer, Marilyn did fully acknowledge that based on probability, both results (a) 11111111111111111111 and (b) 66234441536125563152 are equally likely in the exact sequence that they occur. That is absolutely true and incontrovertible. That is, if you roll the die 20 times in an infinite number of trials, both sequences would occur with the same frequency, either one occurring roughly once every 6^20 trials.

However, in the second part of her original answer, Marilyn continued on to answer the question from a different perspective. She says that after actually rolling a die 20 times, it’s far more likely that the roll produced a mixed bunch of numbers than a series of 1’s, and thus, (b) 66234441536125563152 is more likely than (a) 11111111111111111111.

So, here, Marilyn is actually answering the following question:

Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which of these results is more likely: (a) twenty 1’s in a row (of which 11111111111111111111 is the only example) or (b) a mixed bunch of numbers (of which 66234441536125563152 is just one example)?

Note that the exact sequence is no longer in question, but only whether the die yields the same number repeatedly or not.

Here, the answer would clearly be (b), since there’s far more possible combinations of “mixed bunch of numbers” than twenty 1’s in a row. More technically, the entropy is greater for (b) than (a), and thus more likely.

To her credit, Marilyn never actually said anything incorrect in either of her answers. Perhaps this is because the original question was vague enough to be open to interpretation. That is, the original question could be interpreted in either of the following two ways:

(1) Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which of these results is more likely: (a) 11111111111111111111, or (b) 66234441536125563152, in the exact sequences as written?

(2) Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which of these results is more likely: (a) 11111111111111111111, or (b) 66234441536125563152, when taken as a final result, where the exact sequences are not important?

The answer to (1) is: (a) and (b) are equally likely.
The answer to (2) is: (b) is much more likely than (a).

Marilyn gave both answers. Clever!

9 replies on “Say you plan to roll a die 20 times. Which of these results is more likely: (a) 11111111111111111111, or (b) 66234441536125563152?”

There isn’t a big future in doubting Marilyn.

Nevertheless my answer is a.)

Both the same assumes a perfect die.

But there is no such thing in the real world of manufacturing. My background is Manufacturing and Casinos.

In Manufacturing we have Standard Deviation caused by die wear, mold wear, cleanliness, temperature control and a host of other influences.

In the casino world we have orchestrated shuffles, slight of hand, setting the dice and shaved dice and a host of other carfully controlled influences. Profit motive is a powerful influence on random mathematics, if there is such a thing in the real world.

All 1’s is far more likely in my real world and I wouldn’t be the first to say: “let’s check those dice!”

Yes, assuming a fair die, of course, otherwise the question is trivial.

I don’t have live craps data to test your assertion, but I did do comprehensive and objective analysis on 6,651 live shoes (494,837 live decisions), and I cannot find any artifacts of intentional shuffle manipulation.

Objectively, both live and computer-simulated shoes exhibit statistics which are fully consistent with probability theory. My collected evidence supports casinos are offering fair baccarat games.

If shuffle manipulation routinely occurs in casinos as you assert, then it may be in isolated cases or at specific times.

For the benefit of other readers, please refer to my post Shuffle Control: Why It’s Bad for the House for more discussion.

Both sides of the table have their tricks, some more than others. I was recently checking out of the Flamingo, Vegas through their VIP hostess.

” I brought 44 players to your casino. They each got a $100 comp on their room. Why am I singled out to pay full price?”

I thought I had her. No such luck.

“Well let’s see” as her fingers flew across her keyboard.

“Well I do show you as a very frequent player and that’s good!”

“Ah, but I also see that you have never had a losing day in 20 years at any of our 40 locations – and that’s bad. We only comp those we want to come back.”

I silently handed her my credit card. Hard to argue with perfect logic.

The only comps I’ve ever been offered were for free meals: buffets at Horseshoe, and noodles at Rivers.

Congratulations on your continued winning. Unfortunately, I was unable to reproduce your successes, despite my full, dedicated, and honest efforts, and positive intentions.

Nevertheless, I sincerely hope you’re genuinely able to help others achieve your mastery of the games.

virtuoid, one of my players posted a screen shot of the tote board of the Bac table he was playing. His current shoe had a ZZ run (BPBPBP etc) 23 plays long.

The prior shoe, caught in the same screen shot, had 19 Ps in a row.

When calculating odds of occurrences, you need to consider Frequency of Occurrence.

Sure, 23 in a row occurs when measured against infinity. But what are the odds of back to back shoes containing 19 in a row and 23 in a row???

Sure, anything and everything is possible when measured against infinity. But no run longer than 27 has ever been recorded. Personally, I would bet against a run that has gone 25.

The pro goes by what is happening right now at the table and at the casino he is playing. What are its peculiarities?

Sure, sure, I buy the infinity argument. But I’m also alert to Frequency of Occurrence. When something is happening more than normal, THAT is what I bet on.

You have watched me play. You have seen this work. Do you think a 26% Player Advantage was coincidence? World records are not caused by coincidence. They are tainted by talent.

Ellis,

I have always acknowledged your mastery, and I have personally witnessed your talent in action. Thank you for your graciousness in sharing with me such unforgettable experiences. Thanks likewise to Mark Maverick.

But since I can’t tag along with you or Mark to the tables all the time (Boy, I wish I could!), I tried my best to achieve the same level of performance you and Mark have attained, but failed.

And based on all the follow up discussion as to why I failed, the blame was always placed on anything and anyone except your methods.

So be it. Few can achieve your level of mastery, and I am not one, you’ve made that abundantly clear.

Like I said before, I sincerely hope you’re genuinely helping others attain your mastery of the games.

Best,
Dave

It is true that in only 20 rolls of a die, the probability to get either result is exactly same but what is the purpose of this question? Who is going to predecide next 20 outcomes and make a billion from $1, this way? lol

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